A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a history of recent heavy alcohol consumption. He reports vomiting blood and has symptoms of hematemesis. On examination, the patient is found to be hemodynamically stable but has signs of recent upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The clinical team considers various potential causes for the bleeding.
Mallory-Weiss tears are longitudinal tears located at which part of the gastrointestinal tract?
A. Upper esophagus
B. Lower esophagus
C. Middle esophagus
D. Below the esophago-gastric junction
E. All are correct
The Correct Answer is: D. Below the esophago-gastric junction
Explanation:
– Below the Esophago-Gastric Junction (D): Mallory-Weiss tears are longitudinal tears that occur at the mucosal junction between the esophagus and the stomach, just below the esophago-gastric junction. These tears are typically associated with forceful vomiting or retching, leading to bleeding.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
– Upper Esophagus (A): Mallory-Weiss tears are not located in the upper esophagus; they are found at the junction between the esophagus and stomach.
– Lower Esophagus (B): While Mallory-Weiss tears occur near the lower esophagus, they are specifically located just below the esophago-gastric junction, which is not exactly the lower esophagus.
– Middle Esophagus (C): Mallory-Weiss tears are not located in the middle esophagus; they are localized to the area where the esophagus transitions into the stomach.
– All Are Correct (E): Since the tears are specifically below the esophago-gastric junction and not in all the listed areas, this option is incorrect.
In summary, Mallory-Weiss tears are longitudinal tears located below the esophago-gastric junction, making option D the correct answer.